Private Pilot Practice Test
Real FAA Written Exam Questions
The FAA private pilot knowledge test is 60 questions with a 70% passing score. Try this 15-question sample — every question is exam-style with a full explanation — then drill the topic areas where you missed.
Practice by topic
15-question sample exam
1.Which of the following is required to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers at night?
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A. Three takeoffs and landings to a full stop at night in the last 90 days
To carry passengers at night, 14 CFR §61.57(b) requires three takeoffs and landings to a full stop at night within the preceding 90 days.
2.What is the primary cause of an aircraft stall?
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A. Exceeding the critical angle of attack
A stall occurs when the critical angle of attack is exceeded, regardless of airspeed. This is explained in PHAK Chapter 5.
3.According to the METAR: 'METAR KATL 121753Z 22015G23KT 10SM SCT040 BKN100 31/20 A2990', what does 'SCT040' indicate?
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A. Scattered clouds at 4,000 feet AGL
In a METAR, 'SCT040' means scattered clouds at 4,000 feet above ground level (AGL). (AIM 7-1-28)
4.While navigating solely by pilotage, which feature would be most reliable for identifying your position?
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A. A highway intersection near a unique river bend
Pilotage depends on prominent, easily identifiable landmarks. A highway intersection near a unique river bend is much more reliable for position identification than less distinctive features such as a single row of trees, a small pond, or a generic field. (PHAK Chapter 16)
5.Which instrument is affected if the pitot tube becomes blocked but the drain hole remains open?
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A. Airspeed indicator will read zero
If the pitot tube is blocked but the drain hole remains open, ram air cannot enter and static pressure is vented, causing the airspeed indicator to read zero. If both the pitot tube and drain hole are blocked, the airspeed indicator freezes at its last value. (PHAK Chapter 8)
6.While on downwind, your engine fails. What is your best initial action?
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A. Set best glide speed and choose a landing area
The first priority during an engine failure is to maintain aircraft control by establishing best glide speed and selecting a suitable landing spot. This ensures you maximize your glide distance and have options for a safe landing. (PHAK Chapter 16)
7.Which transponder code should you squawk in the event of a radio communication failure?
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A. 7600
7600 is the transponder code for radio communication failure. (AIM 6-2-5)
8.When determining weight and balance, what is the effect of loading an aircraft with a center of gravity aft of the allowable limit?
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A. Decreased stability and possible difficulty recovering from stalls
An aft center of gravity reduces longitudinal stability and can make stall recovery more difficult. (PHAK Chapter 10)
9.Which type of landing gear is most susceptible to ground looping?
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A. Conventional (tailwheel) landing gear
Tailwheel (conventional) landing gear is most susceptible to ground looping because the center of gravity is located behind the main gear, making the aircraft less directionally stable during ground operations. (PHAK Chapter 6)
10.A pilot approaching an uncontrolled airport at night should activate the runway lights by:
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A. Keying the mic on CTAF the required number of times
Pilot-controlled lighting at uncontrolled airports is activated by keying the microphone on the CTAF a specified number of times, as described in AIM 2-1-7.
11.Which symptom is most likely to indicate carbon monoxide poisoning?
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A. Headache and drowsiness
Headache and drowsiness are classic early symptoms of carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning. CO binds to hemoglobin, reducing oxygen transport in the blood, and these symptoms are often the first warning signs. (PHAK Chapter 17)
12.What is the minimum safe altitude anywhere, if an engine failure necessitates an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface?
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A. An altitude that allows for an emergency landing without undue hazard
14 CFR §91.119 states that the minimum safe altitude anywhere is one that allows, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
13.What type of weather is typically associated with a fast-moving cold front?
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A. Thunderstorms, squall lines, and shifting winds
Fast-moving cold fronts are typically associated with thunderstorms, possible squall lines, and rapidly changing winds due to the rapid lifting of warm air. (PHAK Chapter 12)
14.What is the VOR radial indicated if you are on the 090° FROM the station?
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A. 090 radial
VOR radials are always identified by the direction FROM the station. Therefore, if you are on the 090° FROM the station, you are on the 090 radial. (PHAK Chapter 16)
15.If the static port becomes blocked, which instruments will be affected?
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A. Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and VSI
If the static port becomes blocked, the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator (VSI) will be affected because they rely on static pressure. The turn coordinator and gyroscopic instruments do not use static pressure. (PHAK Chapter 8)
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